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π2 is irrational

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SOME IRRATIONAL NUMBERS

JONATHAN KEOGH

1. Introduction

The first known proof of a number being irrational is older than Euclid himself; a Pythagorean, assuming the square root of two was rational, reached a contradiction, showing it to be in fact rational. Stunning as it was at the time (and allegedly fatal for the discoverer), it was to be another fifteen centuries or so until a proof was found showing any other numbers, excepting the square root of a square-free integer, of being irrational. In this paper, we give three such proofs:

− eis irrational

− esis irrational fors∈Q\ {0}

− π2 is irrational.

In proving the last theorem we then obtain as an easy corollary thatπis irrational.

2. e is irrational The following theorem is due to Fourier.

Theorem. eis irrational Proof. Assume e=P

k=01/k! = a/b, the ratio of positive integers. We then have n!be =n!a for any integer n. The right hand side is an integer, while expanding n!begives

n!be=n!b(

X

k=0

1

k!) =n!b(1 + 1 2!+ 1

3!+· · ·+ 1

n!) +n!b( 1

(n+ 1)! + 1

(n+ 2)!+. . .).

The first term in this sum is an integer, as all factorials less than ndivide n!; for the second term we have

b

n+ 1 < n!b( 1

(n+ 1)!+ 1

(n+ 2)! +. . .)< b( 1

(n+ 1) + 1

(n+ 1)2+. . .) = b n. implying for large enough n (take n= 2b for example) we have 0 < n!b((n+1)!1 +

1

(n+2)!+. . .)<1, showingn!be to not be an integer, a contradiction.

3. es is irrational for r∈Q\ {0}

We first prove the following lemma.

Lemma. Define the function f(x) =xn(1−x)n! n, then (1) f is a polynomial of the form n!1 P2n

k=nckxk,ck ∈Z (2) for0< x <1,0< f(x)<1/n!

(3) fork∈N we havef(k)(0), f(k)(1)∈Z.

Date: 04/10/18.

1

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2 JONATHAN KEOGH

Proof. (1) & (2) are obvious. For (3) we have f(k)(0) = 0 when 0 ≤ k < n;

while f(k)(0) = cn!kk! ∈ Z for n ≤ k ≤ 2n. Noting that f(x) =f(1−x) we get f(k)(x) = (−1)kf(k)(1−x) by the chain rule, implying f(1) = (−1)kfk(0) ∈ Z,

giving the result.

Now for the proof; we consider it in two cases.

Theorem. es is irrational for s∈Q\ {0}

Proof. Assumees=a/b, the ratio of positive integers; for the first case we assumes is a positive integer. Choosensuch thatn!> as2n+1, for reasons that will become clear shortly. Put

F(x) =s2nf(x)−s2n−1f0(x) +s2n−2f00(x)− · · ·+f(2n)(x)−f(2n+1)(x) +. . . The higher derivatives greater than 2n vanish, but writing in this way gives the identityF0(x) =−sF(x) +s2n+1f(x), which implies dxd (esxF(x)) =esxs2n+1f(x).

Now, for a contradiction, put N =b

Z 1

0

e2n+1esxf(x)dx=b[esxF(x)]10=besF(1)−bF(0) =aF(1)−bF(0), which is an integer by the previous lemma, but then

N=b Z 1

0

e2n+1esxf(x)dx < bs2n+1es

n! = as2n+1 n! <1, also by the previous lemma, a contradiction.

For the second case, we assumes∈Q\{0}. Ifes=eab is rational then (eab)b=ea would be rational, in contradiction to the first case.

4. π andπ2 are irrational

We re-use the polynomialf defined above for the following. We explicitly assume πis positive, which is clear from the identityπ=R1

−1

1 1−x2dx.

Theorem. π2 is irrational

Proof. Assumeπ=a/b, the ratio of positive integers. Putting F(x) =bn2nf(x)−π2n−2f0(x) +π2n−4f00(x)−. . .), we then have

F00(x) =−π2F(x) +bnπ2n+2f(x), implying

d

dx(F0(x) sinπx−πF(x) cosπx) =π2anf(x) sinπx.

Define N =π

Z 1

0

anf(x) sinπxdx= [1

πf0(x) sinπx−F(x) cosπx]10=F(0) +F(1), which is again an integer from the previous lemma.

Choosensuch thatπan< n! then 0< N =π

Z 1

0

anf(x) sinπxdx <πan n! <1,

a contradiction.

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SOME IRRATIONAL NUMBERS 3

Corollary. πis irrational

Proof. Ifπ= ab was the ratio of positive integers, thenπ2= ab22 would be rational,

in contradiction to the previous theorem.

References

[1] Martin Aigner and Gunter M. Ziegler. Proofs from The Book. Springer-Verlag, Berlin, fifth edition, 2014. Including illustrations by Karl H. Hofmann.

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