Strengthening proof of Bezout theorem
Abstract:
Bezout theorem is a very important theorem of elementary number theory. That is when an integer array a a1, 2,...,an has the property that a a1, 2,...,an are relatively prime,(i.e. ( ,a a1 2,...,an) 1= ), there exist an infinite number of integer arrays
1 2
( ,x x ,...,xn) which makesx a1 1+x a2 2+ +... x an n =1. Here, there is no particular limits to ( ,x x1 2,...,xn), however, can we add some conditions to it and still keep the conclusion? Firstly, our findings show that when an integer array a a1, 2,...,an satisfies ( ,a a1 2,...,an) 1= , there are an infinite number of integer arrays
1 2
( ,x x ,...,xn) which can make x a1 1+x a2 2+ +... x an n =1 and x xi i+1(i=1,2,…,n-2) was established at the same time. Further,we found that when n + k integers
1,..., n, ,...,1 k
a a b b meet( ,...,a1 a bn, ,...,1 bk) 1= , there are an infinite number of integer arrays ( ,...,x1 x yn, 1,...,yk) which can make
1 1 ... n n 1 1 ... k k 1
x a + +x a +y b + + y b = , x xi i+1(i=1,…,n-1) and y yj j+1 (j = 1,..., k-1) meet the standard at the same time. In addition, our findings show that when n integersa a1, 2,...,an meet ( ,a a1 2,...,an) 1= , it has an infinite number of integer arrays
1 2
( ,x x ,...,xn) which can make x a1 1+x a2 2+ +... x an n =1 and ( ,x xi j)≥2 meet the standard at the same time, here 1≤ < ≤i j n. In short, in this paper, through the concise proof, we found a series of strengthening Bezout theorem, which make it more rich and interesting.
Yukun Ding
裴蜀定理的加强证明 裴蜀定理的加强证明 裴蜀定理的加强证明 裴蜀定理的加强证明
摘要:裴蜀定理是初等数论中一个非常重要的定理,即当n个整数a a1, 2,...,an满 足 ( ,a a1 2,...,an) 1= 时 , 存 在 无 穷 多 组 整 数 ( ,x x1 2,...,xn) 可 以 使 得
1 1 2 2 ... n n 1
x a +x a + +x a = 。这里的( ,x x1 2,...,xn)并没有特别的限制,是否可以给
1 2
( ,x x ,...,xn)一些限制条件而使裴蜀定理依然成立呢?我们的研究结果表明当 n
个整数a a1, 2,...,an满足( ,a a1 2,...,an) 1= 时,存在无穷多组整数( ,x x1 2,...,xn)可以使 得x a1 1+x a2 2+ +... x an n =1和x xi i+1(i=1,3,…,n-2)同时成立。进一步我们发现,当 n+k 个整数a1,...,a bn, ,...,1 bn满足( ,...,a1 a bn, ,...,1 bk) 1= 时,存在无穷多组整数
| ( ,...,x1 x yn, 1,...,yk) 可 以 使 得 x a1 1+ +... x an n+y b1 1+ +... y bk k =1 和
1
i i
x x+ (i=1,…,n-1)和y yj j+1(j=1,…,k-1)同时满足。此外,我们的研究结果表 明当n个整数a a1, 2,...,an满足( ,a a1 2,...,an) 1= 时,存在无穷多组整数( ,x x1 2,...,xn) 可以使得x a1 1+x a2 2+ +... x an n =1和( ,x xi j)≥2同时满足,这里1≤ < ≤i j n。总 之,在该论文中,我们通过简洁而巧妙的证明,发现了一系列加强的裴蜀定理,
使得裴蜀定理更加丰富而有趣。
Strengthening proof of Bezout theorem
Bezout theorem is a very important theorem of elementary number theory, by which lots of mathematic questions at various levels can be solved. Therefore, the further understanding of this theorem is very necessary.
First, let's look at the content of the theorem, set n integers a a1, 2,...,an , d is their greatest common divisor ( i.e.
1 2
( ,a a ,...,an)=d ), then it has an infinite number of integer arrays
1 2
( ,x x ,...,xn) which makes x a1 1+x a2 2+ +... x an n =d . Specially, if
1 2
( ,a a ,...,an) 1= , then there will be an infinite number of integer arrays
1 2
( ,x x ,...,xn) which makesx a1 1+x a2 2+ +... x an n =1.
There are many proof methods of the theorem, it is not difficult to prove it, our idea is to take some restrictions to the integer arrays
1 2
( ,x x ,...,xn), which make this theorem still succeed. We start from the n = 2, if ( ,a a1 2) 1= , there are an infinite number of integer arrays ( ,x x1 2)
makesx a1 1+x a2 2 =1. We guess that here (x1, x2) can satisfy x x1 2(i.e. x1 divide exactly into x2), which makes x a1 1+x a2 2 =1. If the conditions set up, we will getx11 , and we also can say the x1 = 1 or -1, which
2 2 1 1
x a = ±a . Obviously, the equation may not have integer solutions, such as a1=5,a2=7.
Then we came to see the case when n = 3, if ( ,a a a1 2, 3) 1= , there are
infinite integer arrays ( ,x x x1 2, 3) which makes x a1 1+x a2 2+x a3 3=1 , we wonder if here in ( ,x x x1 2, 3), there is a relation of being divided? Assumed that x x1 2 and x x2 3 , we will learn x11, namely x1=1 or -1. If the conditions are set up, we may get the equation x a2 2+x a3 3= ±1 a1 , apparently which may not have integer solutions, as the example that
1 77, 2 119, 3 187
a = a = a = shows. So the conclusion is not established. So when n = 3, whether there are an infinite number of integer arrays
1 2 3
( ,x x x, ) , and two of them have the relations of division, for examplex x1 2, makes the x a1 1+x a2 2+x a3 3=1 established. Fortunately, the theorem is set up.
We first prove a lemma 1: if ( ,a a a1 2, 3) 1= , there are an infinite number of integer k, which make (ka1+a a2, 3) 1=
Prove 1: if( ,a a1 3) 1= , prove there are infinite integer k easily, making that ka1+ ≡a2 1(moda3). The conclusion is established
If( ,a a1 3)= ≥d 2 , unique decomposition theorem is expressed as below
1
1 1 ... l l
a = pα p qα (αi≥1, and pi is prime number)
1
3 1 ... l l
a = pβ p rβ (βi≥1, and pi is prime number)
1 1 min( , )
min( , )
1 3 1
( ,a a )= =d p α β ....pl α βl l
And it is easy to know that ( ,r a1) 1= ,( ,p ai 2) 1=
It is easy to prove any integer k all have (ka1+a p2, i) 1= , then
1
1 2 1
(ka +a p, α...plαl)=1
And there is an infinite number of integer k which makes
1 2 1(mod )
ka + ≡a r , then (ka1+a r2, ) 1= ,
1 2 3
(ka +a a, ) 1= is established.
Prove 2: the unique decomposition theorem will be expressed as
1 1 1
3 1 ... kk 1 ... l l 1 ... mm a = pα p qα β q rβ γ rγ
(p1,...p qk, ,... , ...1 q r rl 1 m are prime numbers, andα β γi, i, i ≥1)
1) assumed that p ai 1 , and( ,p ai 2) 1= , no matter what's value of k,
1 2
(ka +a p, i) 1=
2) assumed that( ,q ai 1) 1= , andq ai 2 only requiresk ≡1(modqi), which makes(ka1+a q2, ) 1i =
3) assumed that( ,r ai 1) 1= ,( ,r ai 2) 1= , just need ka1+ ≡a2 1(mod )ri
That is ka1≡ −1 a2(mod )ri , there must be integer bi makesa b1 i ≡1(mod )ri , That is to say k≡bi(1−a2)(mod )ri , fromq1,... , ,...,q rl 1 rm,any two of these are relatively prime, according to the Chinese remainder theorem, the following more than equations must have an infinite number of integer solutions
1
1 2 1
2
1(mod ) ...
1(mod )
(1 )(mod ) ...
(1 )(mod )
l
m m
k q
k q
k b a r
k b a r
≡
≡
≡ −
≡ −
1 2 3
(ka +a a, ) 1= is established
Using the above lemma 1, we prove the following theorem 1
Theorem 1: if ( ,a a a1 2, 3) 1= , there are an infinite number of integer arrays ( ,x x x1 2, 3) , satisfy
1))))x a1 1+x a2 2+x a3 3=1
2))))x x1 2
Proof: from the above lemma 1, we know that there are infinite k which makes(ka2+a a1, 3) 1= ,
From Bezout theorem, there are infinite integer arrays ( , )s t , which makess ka( 2 +a1)+ta3 =1
Set x1=s x, 2 =sk x, 3 =t, it is easy to knowx x1 2, the theorem 1 was set up.
Furthermore, let's guess the above conclusions are established to all n (n≥3),that is the following guess: if( ,a a1 2,...,an) 1= , it has an infinite number of integer arrays( ,x x1 2,...,xn), satisfy
1) x a1 1+x a2 2+ +... x an n =1 2) x xi i+1(i=1,2,…,n-2)
In order to prove the guess, we should first prove the following lemma 2 Lemma 2: if ( ,a a1 2,...,an) 1= ,,,,there are infinite number of integer arrays(m m1, 2,...,mn−2) which makes(a1+m a1 2+m m a1 2 3+ +... m1...mn−2an−1,an) 1=
Prove: from the lemma 1 we know that when n = 3,the conclusions are established.
Assumed n = k is set up, let’s prove that when n = k + 1 it was set up
1 2 1
( ,a a ,...,a ak, k+ ) 1= , set ak+1 = p1α1...p qlαl 1β1...qhβh (p1,... ,p ql 1,...qh are prime numbers, and α βi, i ≥1) 1) assumed ( ,a p1 1... ) 1pl = ,
Make m1≡0(modp1... )pl , then (a1+m a1 2+m m a1 2 3+ +... m1...m a pk−1 k, 1... ) 1pl =
2) assumed qi...q ah 1, it is easy to know that ( ,a a2 3,...,a qk, ... ) 11 qh = , from inductive assumption we know that there are an infinite number of integer arrays (m2,...,mk−1), satisfy (a2+m a2 3+ +... m2...m a qk−1 k, ... ) 11 qh = ,
Then makem1≡1(mod ... )q1 qh ,we can infer that
1 1 2 1 2 3 1 1 1
(a +m a +m m a + +... m...m a qk− k, ... ) 1qh = ,
It is easy to know that( ... , ... ) 1p1 p ql 1 qh = , By the Chinese remainder theorem, we know that the number of integer m1 which meet the conditions is infinite. Then there are an infinite number of integer arrays
1 2 1
(m m, ,...,mk− ), which make (a1+m a1 2+m m a1 2 3+ +... m1...m a ak−1 k, k+1) 1= . Namely when n = k + 1 is set up, by mathematical induction we know that when n≥3, if ( ,a a1 2,...,an) 1= , then there are an infinite number of integer arrays (m m1, 2,...,mn−2),
Which make (a1+m a1 2+m m a1 2 3+ +... m1...mn−2an−1,an)=1
From the above lemma 2, it is easy to prove the theorem 2 which we guessed before is established, namely
Theorem 2: if( ,a a1 2,...,an) 1= , there are an infinite number of integer arrays ( ,x x1 2,...,xn), satisfy
1))))x a1 1+x a2 2+ +... x an n =1 2))))x xi i+1(i=1,2,…,n-2)
Prove: from the lemma 2, it can be seen that there are an infinite number of integer arrays ( , )x y which makes
1 1 2 1 2 3 1 2 1
( ... ... n n ) n 1
x a +m a +m m a + +m m − a − +ya = established Set x1=x x, 2 =xm x1, 3 =xm m1 2,...,xn−1=xm m1 2...mn−2,xn = y
It is easy to know theorem 2 was set up
Furthermore , we proposed the following guess: n≥2,,,,k ≥2, if
1 1
( ,...,a a bn, ,...,bk) 1= , then there are an infinite number of integer arrays
1 1
( ,...,x x yn, ,...,yk), satisfy
1)x a1 1+ +... x an n+y b1 1+ +... y bk k =1
2)x xi i+1 (i=1,…,n-1) andy yj j+1(j=1,…,k-1)
In order to prove the guess, we first prove the lemma 3 below
Lemma 3:If ( ,...,a1 a bn, ,...,1 bk) 1= , there are an infinite number of integer arrays (m1,...,mn−1, ,...,t1 tk−1)which make
1 1 2 1 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 1
(a +m a +m m a + +... m...m a bn− n, +t b +t t b + +... t...t bk− k) 1=
Prove: set ( ,a a1 2,...,an)=d , so ( ,...,b1 b dk, ) 1=
From lemma 2, we can infer that there are an infinite number of integer arrays ( ,...,t1 tk−1) which make (b1+t b1 2+t t b1 2 3+ +... t1...t b dk−1 k, ) 1= , So, it is easy to know that ( ,a a1 2,...,a bn, 1+t b1 2 +t t b1 2 3+ +... t1...t bk−1 k) 1=
From lemma2, we also infer that there are an infinite number of integer arrays (m1,...,mn−1) which make
1 1 2 1 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 1
(a +m a +m m a + +... m...m a bn− n, +t b +t t b + +... t...t bk− k) 1=
From the above lemma 3, it is easy to prove that the theorem 3 we guessed before is established, namely
Theorem 3: n≥2,,,,k ≥2 , if( ,...,a1 a bn, ,...,1 bk) 1= , there are an infinite number of integer arrays ( ,...,x1 x yn, 1,...,yk), satisfy
1))))x a1 1+ +... x an n+y b1 1+ +... y bk k =1
2))))x xi i+1 (i=1,…,n-1) and y yj j+1((((j=1,…,k-1))))
Prove: from the lemma 3, it can be seen that there are an infinite number of integer arrays ( , )m t which makes
1 1 2 1 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 1
( ... ... n n) ( ... ...k k) 1
m a +m a +m m a + +m m a− +t b +t b +t t b + +t t b− = , set x1 =m x, 2 =mm1,...,xn =mm m1 2...mn−1,y1 =t y, 2 =tt1,...,yk =tt t1 2...tk−1
It easy to know that theorem 3 was set up
Now, let's prove the interesting theorem 4
Theorem 4:n≥3, if ( ,...,a1 an) 1= , there are an infinite number of integer arrays ( ,...,x1 xn), satisfy
1))))x a1 1+ +... x an n =1
2)))) ( ,x xi j)≥2,,,,1≤ < ≤i j n
Prove: Set
a
t= p
1,αt1,t... p
k tαk t,t,1 ≤ ≤ t n
Set B =q q1 2...qn , i
i
B B
= q ( q1,...,qn are prime numbers which are different from 1,
,...,
,t k tt
p p
,1 ≤ ≤ t n
)Set ci = B ai i,1≤ ≤i n
Then it is easy to know that ( ,c c1 2,...,cn) 1= , from the Bezout theorem, we know that there are an infinite number of integer arrays ( ,...,y1 yn) which make y c1 1+ +... y cn n =1
Therefore y B a1 1 1+ +... y B an n n =1 Set xi = y Bi i then ( ,i j) 2
i j
x x B
≥ q q ≥
We can also strengthen the theorem 2 into the theorem 5
Theorem 5: if ( ,a a1 2,...,an) 1= , there are an infinite number of integer arrays ( ,...,x1 xn), satisfy
1))))x a1 1+x a2 2+ +... x an n =1 2))))x xi i+1(i=1,2,…,n-2) 3)))) ( ,x xi n)≥2 (i=2,…,n-1) Prove: Set 1,1,t
...
k t,t,t t k tt
a = p
αp
α 1≤ ≤t nSet b1 =q a b1 1, n =q a b2 n, i =q q a1 2 i,,,,2≤ ≤ −i n 1
(
q q
1,
2 are prime numbers which are different from 1, ,..., ,t k tt
p p ,
1 ≤ ≤ t n
)Therefore ( ,...,b1 bn) 1=
From the theorem 2, we can infer that there are an infinite number of
integer arrays ( ,y y1 2,...,yn), satisfy 1)y b1 1+y b2 2+ +... y bn n =1,
2)y yi i+1 (i=1,2,…,n-2)
From 1), we can infer that y q a1 1 1+y q q a2 1 2 2+ +... yn−1 1 2q q an−1+y q an 2 n =1
Set x1= y q x1 1, n = y q xn 2, i = y q qi 1 2,,,,2≤ ≤ −i n 1
Therefore there are an infinite number of integer arrays ( ,x x1 2,...,xn), satisfy 1)x a1 1+x a2 2+ +... x an n =1
2)x xi i+1(i=1,2,…,n-2) 3) ( ,x xi n)≥2 (i=2,…,n-1)
After continuous exploration, we get a series of very interesting theorems 1-5 as well as important lemmas 1-3. Finally, we proved theorems 2-5 which are stronger than Bezout theorem. To the best of our knowledge, the similar conclusion on Bezout theorem was scarcely reported. Therefore, we could see if we continue to explore some old and classic theorem, we can get some interesting new results. We wish this article can play a valuable role on Bezout theorem.
Bibliography
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