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A Brief Solution to the Riemann Hypothesis Over the Lagarias Transformation

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HAL Id: hal-01520127

https://hal.archives-ouvertes.fr/hal-01520127v5

Preprint submitted on 16 Sep 2018

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A Brief Solution to the Riemann Hypothesis Over the Lagarias Transformation

Mesut Kavak

To cite this version:

Mesut Kavak. A Brief Solution to the Riemann Hypothesis Over the Lagarias Transformation. 2018.

�hal-01520127v5�

(2)

Mathematics: Prime Numbers The RH 16 September 2018 (v.4)

A Brief Solution to the Riemann Hypothesis over the Lagarias Transformation

Mesut KAVAK*

In accordance with the transformation of Lagarias [1] which is the equivalent of the Riemann Hy- pothesis, for a positive integern, letσ(n) denote the sum of the positive integers that dividen. Let Hndenote thenth harmonic number by

Hn=

n

X

n=1

1 n

Does the following inequality hold for alln≥1 whereσ(n) is the sum of divisors function?

Hn+ln(Hn)eHn≥σ(n) 1 Definition for the solutions

Theorem:First of all, let’s define an imaginary function asρ(n), and know that this function is the sum of the elements which are not dividable being the result is an integer for a function as nHnfor each n; so according to this definition, it becomes as the following.

Hn=σ(n)+ρ(n) n

Here actuallyρ(n) is only by definition. There is no function like this and thus the rule of the func- tion is not known. It is imaginary as a catalyzer.

It does its work and leaves the actual functions alone without becoming inclusive when it shows us the result. This equation is only for relating n,Hnandσ(n) together somehow. ρ(n) can be a negative number that is negative for the values of lnHn > 1 here as we are going to see it over the below stated operations. If the result is suitable by the assumptions, then we can use it.

Warning By using the equation, Hn+ln(Hn)eHn ≥ σ(n) inequality turns into (1).

Hn+ln(Hn)eHn≥nHn−ρ(n) (1) If it is edited, it becomes (2) over (2a).

ln(Hn)eHn+ρ(n)

n−1 ≥Hn (2)

ln(Hn)eHn≥nHn−Hn−ρ(n) (2a) Condition: Right this point assume, that the actual in- equality is not (2) but is (3).

eHn

n ≥Hn (3)

On (2), assume that actually the numerator is always big- ger thaneHn, and thus also if the divisor wasn−1, this would increase the possibility of to be greater than Hn of the divi- sion; so for the worst possibility, let’s use this as (3). If the

following operations are not verified over these above stated definitional assumptions, then we must redetermine the condi- tions and definitions.

Here if the numerator is bigger thaneHn, then the equation becomes 1−lnρ(n)H

n >eHnover ln(Hn)eHn+ ρ(n)>eHn; soρ(n) is negative for lnHn>1.

Warning Now, let (3) be (4).

n

e≥ nHn

nHn (4)

Fore= lim

n−→∞

Å 1+1

n ãn

, (4) becomes (5).

n−→∞lim Å

1+1 n≥ nHn

nHn ã

(5) For this, it can be written as (6)

n−→∞lim Å

n+1≥nk ã

(6) wherek = nHn

nHn. Forn ≥ nk−1 it becomes 1n ≥ k−1;

so what ever the direction of the inequality is, even if both sides were equal to each other,kwould not become a number smaller than 1 sincenis always positive. It is alwaysk >1.

Here assume, that is (7)

n=nk−1+b (7)

since it isn≥nk−1 over (6), wherebis a number beingb∈R+ and thus beingb>0; thus it becomes (8) over (7).

n= b−1

1−k (8)

Since the inequality isk >1, thenbmust always be smaller number than 1 to be positive of the division; thus it becomes 1 >b >0; sokcannot take random values sincenis positive integer. If it isk >1, for the greatest value ofk, it becomes limb→0k=2. For this value, equality of (7) becomesn=2n−1 and thus becomesn=1. It means, actuallykdecreases as long

*[email protected] 1

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16 September 2018 (v.4) Mathematics: Prime Numbers

asnincreased; thus it means it is always (9), 1= lim

m−→∞

m

m (9)

wherem∈Z+; thus also means it is (10), 1= lim

n−→∞

nHn

nHn (10)

since the inequality isHn≥1 and thus isnHn≥1.

2 The Result: RH+

By the above stated defined elements, in accordance with (6), if it is limn→∞n+1≥nk, then it becomes limn→∞ 1

k−1 ≥n.

Assume that it is actuallyk=n−pwherepis real number. For this, the previous inequality becomes limn→∞ 1

n−p−1 ≥ n and thus becomes limn→∞p ≥ n2−n−1

n . Here assume that actually for eachn, the inequality always turns intop=n2−n−1n equality.

For this,k=n−pbecomesk= n+n1and thus (6) becomes (11).

n−→∞lim n+1≥n+1 (11)

(11) shows us that for eachn, limn−→∞n+1 ≥nkinequality is defined; thus the above stated assumptions and imaginary functions are also suitable. Since (11) is also equivalent of (3), also it is equivalent of (12).

Hn+ln(Hn)eHn≥σ(n) (12) There were some mistakes before. Sincek can only take values smaller than 2, I thought it fornk likenkis always fixed. For the worst possiblity if you takek = 2, it becomes limn−→∞n+1 ≥ 2n and thus the finalizing became false; so I changed the finalizing methods at the Result section.

Note on 16.09.2018 Acknowledgment

I have been working about some unknown problems for a time [2] that Riemann Hypothesis is included as well, and a short time ago I supposed that I found a solution out to the Rie- mann Hypothesis; but I noticed that there is a stupid mistake;

after that I published a brief approach; for a long time I did not work about it; but today I remembered it and just wanted to work because of boredom, and finally I could bring a sim- ple solution out indirectly in a few hours again after midnight even if it is not so sexy and enlightening about the functions to determine relation with prime separation. The solution in- cludes indirect and tricky definitions and operations. Even so, solution is solution always.

Good bye!

References

1. Jeffrey C. Lagarias. 2002An Elementary Problem Equivalent to the Rie- mann Hypothesis, The American Mathematical Monthly. Vol. 109, No.

6, pp. 534-543

2. Kavak M. 2018, Complement Inferences on Theoretical Physics and Mathematics, OSF Preprints, Available online: https://osf.io/tw52w/

2 2 The Result: RH+

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